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  • Polity – Yearwise Questions – FR – Centre – State And Local Government – W.B.C.S. Mains Examination.

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    WBCS Main Question Paper – 2019

    1. A resolution ratifying a Proclamation of Emergency requires to be passed
      (A) by either House of Parliament.
      (B) by Lok Sabha.
      (C) by both Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting.
      (D) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings With majority of total membership of each House and by majority of net less than 2/3rd of members present and voting.
    2. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is
      (A) the President of India
      (B) the Vice-President of India
      (C) the Speaker of the House of the People
      (D) None of the above
    3. The Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects of all three
      Lists in respect of
      (Article 239, Part VII)
      (A) Backward areas
      (B) Hill areas
      (C) Scheduled areas
      (D) Union Territories
    4. Judicial review of proclamation under Article 356 would lie on any one of
      the following grounds:
      (A) The proclamation has been made upon the consideration which is
      extraneous or irrelevant.
      (B) Exercise of the power under Article 356 is malafide.
      (C) A statutory order which lacks bona fide characteristics.
      (D) All of the above
    5. Which one of the following is no longer considered an adequate ground
      for the Issue of Proclamation of Emergency?
      (A) Armed rebellion
      (B) External aggression
      (C) Internal disturbance
      (D) War
    6. A change in distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
      can be done by
      (A) the Union Government
      (B) the States by themselves
      (C) amending the Constitution
      (D) None of the above
    7. In the context of qualifications for contesting Presidential elections in India,
      which of the following statements is incorrect?
      (A) He should be a citizen of India.
      (B) He should not hold office of profit.
      (C) He should be qualified to be elected to the House of the People.
      (D) He should be aged 30
    8. The Constitution reserves the residuary powers in the
      (Article 248)
      (A) President
      (B) Parliament
      (C) Union
      (D) States
    9. The Union Government can assign any function to the States
      (A) on the recommendation of the Parliament.
      (B) on the directive of the President.
      (C) on its own discretion.
      (D) with the consent of the concerned State Government.
    10. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on
      (A) criminal law and procedure
      (B) economic and social planning
      (C) marriage, contracts and torts
      (D) All of the above
    11. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law is found in
      (A) Article 156
      (B) Article 254
      (C) Article 300
      (D) Entry 42, List III
    12. Which of the following is not true?
      (A) Parliament has exclusive power to make law on any matter in the Union
      List.
      (B) Parliament and State Legislatures have power to make law on any matter
      in the Concurrent List.
      (C) In certain exceptional circumstances, State Legislatures can make
      law on the subject given in the Union List.
      (D) Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List in certain
      circumstances.
    13. A legislation enacted by a State Legislature falls in the category of
      legislation.
      (A) autonomous
      (B) delegated
      (C) subordinate
      (D) supreme
    14. The Executive Power of the State is vested with
      (A) People of the State
      (B) Chief Minister of the State
      (C) Governor of the State
      (D) State Legislature
    15. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
      (A) constituent power
      (B) executive power
      (C) judicial power
      (D) legislative power
    16. Any charge for impeachment of the President may be preferred
      (Article 61)
      (A) only in the Council of States
      (B) only in the House of the People
      (C) in either House of the Parliament
      (D) only in joint session of the Parliament
    17. The Governor can be removed from the office
      (Article 156)

    (A) by the President at his pleasure.
    (B) by impeachment in Parliament.
    (C) on the advice of the Chief Minister.
    (D) on a resolution passed by two-third majority in the State Legislative
    Assembly.

    1. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the
      President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall
      discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected?
      (A) Chief Justice of India
      (B) Leader of the majority party in the Parliament
      (C) Senior-most amongst the Governors of States
      (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    2. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to
      (A) Consolidated Fund of India
      (B) Contingency Fund of India
      (C) Consolidated Fund of the State
      (D) (A) and (C) in equal proportion
    3. Who among the following is competent to seek the advisory opinion of
      the Supreme Court of India?
      (Article 143 – advisory jurisdiction)
      (A) The President of India
      (B) The Governor of a State
      (C) The Prime Minister of India
      (D) All of the above
    4. Rajya Sabha has a term of
      (A) five years
      (B) six years
      (C) ten years
      (D) it is a permanent body in which one-third of the members retire after every second year
    5. The Parliament of India consists of
      (A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
      (B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
      (C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
      (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the Prime Minister
    6. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
      (A) fourteen days
      (B) one month
      (C) three months
      (D) six months
    7. Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution deal with
      (A) Election Commission
      (B) Inter-State Commerce Commission
      (C) Legislative Councils
      (D) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor

    25.The council of Ministers at the Union remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of
    (Article 75)
    (A) Lok Sabha
    (B) Parliament
    (C) President
    (D) Prime Minister

    1. The President nominates Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
      (A) 1
      (B) 2
      (C) 5
      (D) 7
    2. The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is
      (A) 25
      (B) 50
      (C) 100
      (D) 126
    3. Which of these Houses is presided over by a non-Member?
      (A) Lok Sabha
      (B) Rajya Sabha
      (C) Vidhan Sabha
      (D) All of the above
    4. A person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a
      Member of Parliament for the maximum period of
      (A) one month
      (B) three months
      (C) six months
      (D) one year
    5. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on
      the recommendation of
      (Article 169)
      (A) the State Legislative Assembly
      (B) the Governor
      (C) the President
      (D) None of the above
    6. Decisions regarding disqualification of members of Lok Sabha are taken
      by the
      (A) Parliamentary Secretary
      (B) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
      (C) Prime Minister
      (D) Speaker
    7. On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill having been passed by both
      Houses of the Parliament, the President
      (A) may give his assent.
      (B) may withhold his assent.
      (C) may return the Bill for reconsideration.
      (D) shall give his assent.
    8. What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of each House
      of the Parliament?
      (A) Three months
      (B) Six months
      (C) Nine months
      (D) One year
    9. Which provision of the Constitution gives the Governor of a State power
      to grant pardon in certain cases?
      (A) Article 151
      (B) Article 155
      (C) Article 161
      (D) Article 165
    10. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the People?
      (A) Speaker
      (B) Prime Minister
      (C) President
      (D) Council of Ministers
    11. Which provision of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of
      disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
      (A) Article 258
      (B) Article 260
      (C) Article 262
      (D) Article 264
    12. A Constitutional Amendment shall also be ratified by Legislatures of not
      less than one-half of the States by resolution if it is meant to make any
      change
      (A) Fundamental Rights
      (B) Directive Principles
      (C) Fundamental Duties
      (D) Special Provisions
    13. Which of the following Amendments added anti-defection provisions in
      the Constitution?
      (A) 41st Amendment
      (B) 52nd Amendment (1985)
      (C) 43rd Amendment
      (D) 44th Amendment
    14. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be for
      (A) 3 years
      (B) 4 years
      (C) 5 years, unless dissolved earlier
      (D) co-extensive with the term of legislative assembly
    15. Election to the Gram Panchayats are
      (A) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
      (B) by indirect method
      (C) by Legislature of the States
      (D) None of the above
    16. A Union Territory is administered by
      (A) the Governor of the territory.
      (B) the President of India directly.
      (C) the President of India through an administrator appointed by him
      called the Lieutenant Governor.

      (D) the Chief Minister of the territory and his Council of Ministers.
    17. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
      (A) defections
      (B) the Election Commission
      (C) the Finance Commission
      (D) Other Backward Classes
    18. Which Article provides for procedure in Parliament with respect to
      Estimates?
      (A) Article 110
      (B) Article 111
      (C) Article 113
      (D) Article 114
    19. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of the
      Parliament?
      (A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
      (B) President
      (C) Prime Minister
      (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

    WBCS Main Question Paper – 2018

    1. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the
      President?
      a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
      b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
      c) Attorney General of India
      d) Chairman of the UPSC
    2. The Parliament of India consists of
      a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
      b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
      c) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
      d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
    3. Total strength of the Council of States consists of
      a) 260 members
      b) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12
      nominated by the President
      c) 305 members
      d) 300 members representing States and Union Territories
    4. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by
      a) Direct elections
      b) Indirect elections
    5. c) the system of proportional representation
      d) the system of proportional representation by means of single
      transferable vote
    6. The largest committee of Parliament of India is
      a) Public Accounts Committee
      b) Estimates Committee
      c) Committee on Public Undertaking
      d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
    7. The power of allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States
      and the constituencies is vested with
      a) Election Commission
      b) Parliament
      c) State Legislatures
      d) President
    8. Rajya Sabha can without withhold Money Bills for a period of
      a) 14 days
      b) 3 months
      c) 6 months
      d) None of the above
    9. Who among the following has a right to speak or otherwise participate in
      the proceedings of either House or in any joint sitting of the parliament
      without voting right?
      a) Chief Justice of India
      b) Chief Election Commissioner
      c) Attorney General of India
    10. d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    11. Prorogation of a House means
      a) a House has been brought in session
      b) the session of the House has been terminated
      c) the House itself stands terminated
      d) None of the above
    12. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister
      a) the Cabinet may choose another leader
      b) fresh general election must take place
      c) the ministry is dissolved
      d) President’s decision
    13. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on
      the recommendation of
      a) President
      b) Governor
      c) State Legislative Assembly
      d) None of the above
    14. The maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of
      Parliament can be
      a) 10
      b) 12
      c) 14
      d) 20
    15. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of
      Parliament, the President
      a) may return the Bill for reconsideration
      b) shall give his assent
      c) may give his assent
      d) may without his assent
    16. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct
      election from territorial constituencies in the States?
      a) 520
      b) 530
      c) 540
      d) 550
    17. The President of India nominates
      a) Chief Election Commissioner
      b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
      c) Chief Justice of India
      d) All of the above
    18. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States
      a) the President of India
      b) the speaker of Lok Sabha
      c) the Vice-President
      d) None of the above
    19. Xth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
      a) the Finance Commission
      b) the Election Commission
      c) Other Backward Classes
      d) defections
    20. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving question of repugnancy
      between Central Law and the State Law is found in
      a) Article 156
      b) Article 254
      c) Article 300
      d) Entry 42, List III
    21. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes
      relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
      a) Article 258
      b) Article 260
      c) Article 262
      d) Article 264
    22. The Central Government can issue direction to the States with regard to
      I. Union list
      II. State List
      III. Concurrent List
      a) I
      b) II and III
      c) I and III
      d) I, II and III
    23. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum
      number of times?
      (Article 356)
      a) National Emergency
      b) President Rule in a State
      c) Financial Emergency
      d) All three, equal number of times
    24. Then the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok
      Sabha are vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the Speaker?
      a) The President
      b) The Chief Justice of India
      c) The Prime Minister
      d) The Council of Ministers
    25. After what time period may a House declare the seat of any member
      vacant, when he absents from all meetings without permission of the house?
      a) 30 days
      b) 45 days
      c) 60 days
      d) There is no time period
    26. Power of the Governor to grant pardon, etc., and to suspend, remit or
      commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in
      a) Article 159
      b) Article 161
      c) Article 162
      d) Article 163
    27. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the
      President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall
      discharge the functions of the President till the new President is elected?
      a) Chief Justice of India
      b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
      c) Seniormost Governor
      d) Leader of the majority party
    28. In the performance of his duties in exercise of his powers, the Governor
      a) is answerable to the Vidhan Sabha
      b) is answerable in the court of law
      c) is not answerable to the court of law
      d) can be impeached by the Vidhan Sabha
    29. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the
      maximum period of
      a) six months
      b) nine months
      c) one year
      d) two years
    30. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
      (Article 123)
      a) Constituent power
      b) Legislative power
      c) Executive power
      d) Quasi-judicial power
    31. The President of India has power to
      a) summon each House of Parliament
      b) dissolve the Houses or either House of Parliament
      c) prorogue the Houses or either House of Parliament
      d) Dissolve the Lok Sabha only
    32. Any charge of impeachment of the President may be preferred
      (Article 61)
      a) only in the Council of States
      b) only in the House of the People
      c) only in joint session of Parliament
      d) by either House of Parliament
    33. The disputes regarding the election of President and Vice-President of
      India are filed and settled
      a) in the Supreme Court
      b) in the Parliament
      c) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts
      d) in the Election Commission

    WBCS Main Question Paper – 2017

    1. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List :
      (A) When a party enjoys ⅔rd majority in the House.
      (B) By the consent of the legislature of the State concerned.
      (C) When Rajya Sabha passes a Resolution by ⅔rd majority.
      (D) With the consent of the President and Chief Justice of India.
    2. A ‘No-confidence Motion’ in the Lok Sabha can be introduced by the
      support of at least
      (A) 10% of the Lok Sabha members.
      (B) 50% of the Lok Sabha members.
      (C) By all the opposition members.
      (D) By any single member of the Lok Sabha.
    3. Seats to Lok Sabha are not reserved for
      (A) Schedule Castes
      (B) Schedule Tribes
      (C) Schedule Tribes in Autonomous Districts of Assam
      (D) Anglo-Indian
    4. Xth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
      (A) the Finance Commission
      (B) the Election Commission
      (C) defections
      (D) Other Backward Classes
    5. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Indian
      Parliament ?
      (A) Prime Minister
      (B) President
      (C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
      (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
    6. Election to the Gram Panchayats are
      (A) by indirect method
      (B) by legislatures of the State
      (C) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
      (D) by Council of Ministers
    7. The State List contains
      (Initially 66, 42nd Amendment)
      (A) 96 subjects
      (B) 106 subjects
      (C) 61 subjects
      (D) 79 subjects
    8. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of
      repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
      (A) Article 254
      (B) Article 300
      (C) Entry 42, List III
      (D) Article 156
    9. Amendment of the Constitution of India are made by exercise of
      (A) Constitutional power of the Parliament
      (B) Inherent power of the Parliament
      (C) Legislative power of the Parliament
      (D) Constituent power of the Parliament
    10. Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law appears in
      (A) Article 246
      (B) Article 265
      (C) Article 266
      (D) Article 268
    11. How many amendments of the constitution have been made till date ?(104 till JAN 20202)
      (A) 99
      (B) 100
      (C) 101
      (D) 102
    12. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed by which of the following
      constitutional authorities
      (A) President
      (B) President and Governor of a state
      (C) Governor
      (D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
    13. Which of the following pair of articles of the Indian Constitution deals
      with the oath or affirmation and impeachment of the President of India ?
      (A) Article 60 & Article 61
      (B) Article 62 & Article 63
      (C) Article 99 & Article 100
      (D) Article 72 & Article 73
    14. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the
      power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature
      ?
      (A) Article 206
      (B) Article 208
      (C) Article 213
      (D) Article 212
    15. The Constitution Amendment Bills are initiated in
      (A) Lok Sabha
      (B) Rajya Sabha
      (C) Either House

    (D) Rajya Sabha with prior approval from Lok Sabha

    1. The Certificate to a Money Bill is signed by
      (A) The Prime Minister of India
      (B) The Leader of Opposition of the House of the People
      (C) The Finance Minister of India
      (D) The Speaker of the House of the People
    2. The Freedom of Speech of a Member of Parliament during the sojourn
      of Session is (Article 105)
      (A) almost absolute
      (B) subject to restriction of Fundamental Right
      (C) is regulated by the Parliament itself
      (D) is similar to that of an advocate acting on behalf of his client
    3. In the Election of the President, each Member of the Electoral College
      has
      (A) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many
      preferences as there are candidates

      (B) one vote as many votes there are candidates
      (C) one vote with particular value attached to it
      (D) one vote
    4. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
      (A) Executive power
      (B) Legislative power
      (C) Constituent power
      (D) Quasi-judicial power
    5. The term of the office of Vice President is
      (A) five years from the date on which he takes oath of the office.
      (B) five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
      (C) five years from the date of his election is announced.
      (D) five years later from the date on which he enters upon his office.
    6. Give correct response to :
      (A) The President of India can seek re-election as many times under the
      Letter of Constitution, but there is well established convention that he
      should not seek re-election for more than two terms.
      (B) The President of India is ineligible for re-election.
      (C) The President of India cannot be re-elected for more than three times.
      (D) The President of India is eligible for re-election as many times he
      desires.
    7. Which of the following statement(s) is / are not true regarding ‘Inter
      State Council‘ ?
      (Article 263)
      (A) It is required to meet at least thrice every year.
      (B) It is established under Article 265 of the Constitution of India.
      (C) Decision of the Chairman is bound by the Consensus.
      (D) Decision on all questions are required to be taken in Consensus.
    8. Which among the following states has two Houses i.e. Legislative
      Assembly and legislative council:
      (A) Assam
      (B) West Bengal
      (C) Arunachal Pradesh
      (D) Bihar
    9. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India as it stands
      today deals with
      (A) power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution.
      (B) authority of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India.
      (C) procedure for Amendment of the Constitution to be followed by the
      Parliament.
      (D) passing and Ratification of Amendment Bills by State Legislature.
    10. List I – Union List in Seventh schedule contain how many items ?
      (A) 76
      (B) 87
      (C) 97
      (D) 99
    11. Minimum how many days’ notice is required to move the resolution to
      remove the deputy Chairman of the Council of States ?
      (A) 10 days
      (B) 14 days
      (C) 20 days
      (D) 30 days
    12. The President nominates ____ Anglo-Indian members to the Lok
      Sabha.
      (A) 5
      (B) 1
      (C) 2
      (D) 7
    13. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of
      (A) President
      (B) Prime Minister
      (C) Parliament
      (D) Chief Minister
    14. The Constitution of India provides special procedure for
      (A) Financial Bills
      (B) Money Bills
      (C) Both Money and Financial Bills
      (D) None of the above
    15. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
      (A) 14 days
      (B) 3 months
      (C) 6 months
      (D) None of the above
    16. Money Bill can be
      (A) Invalid by Rajya Sabha
      (B) Invalid by both the Houses
      (C) Rajya Sabha can reject the bill
      (D) None of the above
    17. The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by
      the President from amongst the persons having special knowledge or
      practical experience in
      (A) Literature, science, art and social services
      (B) Literature, art and law
      (C) Literature, science and philosophy
      (D) Literature, science and art
    18. Council of States can be suspended during session
      (A) By Prime Minister of India
      (B) By Speaker of Lok Sabha
      (C) By Chairman of Rajya Sabha
      (D) None of the above
    19. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory
      opinion of the Supreme Court of India
      (Article 143)
      (A) The President of India
      (B) The Parliament of India
      (C) The Governor of a State
      (D) The Prime Minister of India
    20. The Ordinance issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by
      (A) President
      (B) Chief Minister
      (C) State Legislature
      (D) None of the above
    21. If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office before the expiry of his
      term, he may address his resignation to
      (Article 156)
      (A) Chief Minister of the State
      (B) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
      (C) Prime Minister
      (D) President
    22. The power to grant pardons, reprieves or remissions of punishment
      under Article 72 in exercised by the President of India
      (A) on the advice of the Prime Minister
      (B) on his own as Head of the Union
      (C) on the advice of Council of Ministers
      (D) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on
      the advice of his cabinet
    23. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
      (A) Executive Power
      (B) Legislative Power
      (C) Constituent Power
      (D) Quasi-Judicial Power
    24. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for
      the maximum period
      (A) One year
      (B) Two years
      (C) Six months
      (D) Nine months
    25. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the
      President and Vice President of India, who among the following shall
      discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected
      (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
      (B) Leader of the majority party
      (C) Chief Justice of India
      (D) Senior most Governor
    26. Who among the following holds his / her office at the pleasure of the
      President ?
      (A) Chairman of UPSC
      (B) Attorney General of India
      (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
      (D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
    27. Power of Governor to grant pardon etc. and to suspend, rent or
      commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in
      (A) Article 159
      (B) Article 161
      (C) Article 162
      (D) Article 163
    28. All matters relating to the election of the Vice President including any
      election petition shall be enquired into by
      (A) Election Tribunal specifically constituted the purpose
      (B) Supreme Court
      (C) A Committee constituted for the purpose by Rajya Sabha
      (D) Any High Court where the petition is moved
    29. Which Article of the Constitution of India prescribes power to The
      President to issue Ordinance ?
      (A) Article 123
      (B) Article 72
      (C) Article 125
      (D) Article 254

    WBCS Main Question Paper – 2016

    1. Who said that the emergency powers of the President is a fraud on the
      Constitution ?
      (A) K.M. Nambiar
      (B) K.M. Munshi
      (C) Dr. B.N. Rao
      (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    2. A member of Parliament or a State Legislature can be elected as the
      President, but –
      (Article 59(1))
      (A) he has to resign his seat before contesting election.
      (B) he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he enters upon his office
      as President

      (C) he has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election.
      (D) a member of Parliament can contest but a member of State Legislature
      cannot contest.
    3. In the election of the President
      (A) the members of the State Legislative Assemblies enjoy more votes.
      (B) the members of Parliament enjoy more votes.
      (C) the members of State Legislative Assemblies and two houses of
      Parliament enjoy equal number of votes.
      (D) None of the above
    4. During the recess of the Parliament the President can promulgate
      ordinances
      (A) with the prior approval of the Parliament.
      (B) with the prior approval of the Supreme Court of India.
      (C) with the consent of the Council of Ministers.
      (D) on his own.
    5. Under the Constitution it is —
      (A) obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers
      but is not obliged to follow it.
      (B) obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of
      Ministers.
      (C) not obligatory for the President to seek or accent the advice of the
      Council of Ministers.
      (D) obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers if his own party is in power.
    6. The President can declare emergency on ground of the breakdown of
      Constitutional machinery in the states –
      (A) only on the receipt of report from the Governor of the state to this effect.
      (B) even without a receipt of a report from the Governor if he is
      satisfied that situation has arisen in which the govt. of the state
      cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
      (C) if the Council of Ministers of the States recommends to the President.
      (D) if the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly recommends to the
      President.
    7. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for
      its approval-
      (44th amendment of 1978)
      (A) within one month
      (B) within two months
      (C) within six months
      (D) within one year
    8. With the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can be
      continued for
      (A) a maximum period of three years.
      (B) a maximum period of one year.

    (C) an indefinite period.
    (D) a maximum period of six months.

    1. Which one of the following changes is not effected during the national
      emergency ?
      (A) The Fundamental Rights of the citizens can be suspended.
      (B) The distribution of revenue between the Union and the States can be
      modified.
      (C) The President can issue directions to the state with regard to exercise of
      their powers.
      (D) The President can act in his discretion the advice of the Council of
      Ministers.
    2. Constitutionally the members of the Council of Ministers hold office-
      (A) during the pleasure of the President.
      (B) during the pleasure of the Speaker.
      (C) during the pleasure of the Parliament.
      (D) during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
    3. In Indian states the tribal population is largest in-
      (A) Assam and Tripura
      (B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
      (C) Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
      (D) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand
    4. The maximum duration for which the Vice-President may officiate as
      President is-
      (A) 1 year
      (B) 3 months
      (C) 1 months
      (D) 6 months
    5. The Article 243F deals with-
      (A) disqualification from being a member of panchayat under any law.
      (B) every panchayat is continued for a period of 5 years.
      (C) the panchayat can impose taxes and raise funds.
      (D) some seats are reserved for SCs and STs in the states.
    6. ‘Contempt of Court’ places restriction on which Fundamental Right ?
      (A) Right to Freedom
      (B) Right against Exploitation
      (C) Right to Equality
      (D) Right to Religion
    7. When is the annual meeting of Gram Sabha being held ?
      (A.) December
      (B) June
      (C) October
      (D) August
    8. In which year the metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70
      member legislative assembly ?
      (69th Amendment Act.)
      (A) 1990
      (B) 1992
      (C) 1993
      (D) 1994
    9. Which of the following article was omitted from the Indian constitution by the 80th Amendment act. ?
      (A) Article 268
      (B) Article 269
      (C) Article 270
      (D) Article 272
    10. The administrative relation between the center and the state are outlined in
      (A) Articles 256-263
      (B) Articles 245-255
      (C) Articles 264-300
      (D) Articles 250-260
    11. “A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion
      can be stopped” is known in parliamentary terminology as-
      (A) Session
      (B) Closure
      (C) Resolution
      (D) De jure
    12. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha (552) was fixed according to-
      (A) 1981 Census
      (B) 1961 Census
      (C) 1951 Census
      (D) 1971 Census
    13. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal Councils ?
      (A) Government of India Act, 1935
      (B) Indian Independence Act, 1947
      (C) People’s Representation Act, 1950
      (D) States Reorganization Act, 1956
    14. The formation of the Council of Ministers starts with –
      (A) the ordering of the general election of Parliament.
      (B) the appointment of the Prime Minister.
      (C) the appointment of the President.
      (D) the formal notification of the President.
    15. The time allowed to the members of a house to ask question to the
      minister concerned, is called-
      (A) The Question Hour
      (B) Zero Hour
      (C) Adjournment Motion
      (D) Call Attention Motion
    16. “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”, which Article states this ?
      (A) 75(2)
      (B) 75(1)
      (C) 75(4)
      (D) 75(3)
    17. The 59th Constitutional Amendment act was intended to –
      (1988)
      (A) Curb political defection
      (B) Impose emergency in Punjab
      (C) Prevent the practice of Sati
      (D) Prevent communal disturbance
    18. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly ?
      (A) 40
      (B) 60
      (C) 50
      (D) 70
    19. Which one of the following articles deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the Advocate General of State ?
      (A) Article 155
      (B) Article 165
      (C) Article 175
      (D) Article 185
    20. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint Committee on Office of Profit ?
      (A) 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
      (B) 10 from Lok Sabha and 5 from Rajya Sabha
      (C) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
      (D) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
    21. What is Zero Hour ?
      (A) When the proposals of the opposition are considered.
      (B) When matters of utmost importance are raised.
      (C) Interval between morning and afternoon sessions
      (D) When a Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha.
    22. The Constitution was amended for the first time in-
      (A) 1961
      (B) 1971
      (C) 1951
      (D) 1981
    23. Who summons the meeting of the Gram Panchayat Sabha ?
      (A) B.D.O
      (B) S.D.O
      (C) Gram Pradhan
      (D) Zilla Parishad
    24. Which among the following article is specifically excluded from the
      purview of the procedure of amendment as prescribed in Article 368 ?
      (simple majority)
      (A) Article 54
      (B) Article 55
      (C) Article 214
      (D) Article 169
    25. In which year was the first Panchayat election held ?
      (A) 1978 (1st in WB)
      (B) 1980
      (C) 1982
      (D) 1981
    26. Which one of the following steps cannot be taken by the President
      during the Financial Emergency ?
      (A) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such canons
      of financial propriety as he deems desirable.
      (B) He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens.
      (C) He can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil
      servants.
      (D) He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.
    27. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister in relation to
      the Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed ?
      (A) The members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President
      on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
      (B) He allocates portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers
      (C) He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers
      (D) He can dismiss the Council of Ministers if he finds that the
      members are not cooperating with him
    28. In the Council of States in India, all the States are not equally
      represented because
      (A) the states that joined the Indian Union did not demand equal
      representation
      (B) no independent states existed in India voluntarily seeking Union as in the USA.
      (C) in the Constituent Assembly the spokesmen of States’ rights did not
      demand equal representation.
      (D) the dominant Congress party in the Constituent Assembly wanted unitary government.
    29. Which among the following statements is not correct ?
      (A) All money bills can originate in Lok Sabha only
      (B) Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha
      only.
      (C) Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok
      Sabha only.

      (D) No confidence motion against Council of Ministers is exclusive power of
      Lok Sabha.
    30. The Governor of a state can —
      (A) nominate one third members of Legislative Assembly
      (B) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Assembly
      (C) nominate one third members of Legislative Council
      (D) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Council
    31. The financial functions of the Council of Ministers include the right of

      (A) to certify whether a bill is a money bill or not.
      (B) to prepare and introduce the budget in the Parliament.
      (C) to control expenditure out of the Contingency Fund of India.
      (D) to appoint Finance Commission from time to time.
    32. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office –
      (A) by the President at his discretion.
      (B) by the Rajya Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.
      (C) by the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.
      (D) by the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha jointly by passing a vote of no
      confidence against it.

    WBCS Main Question Paper – 2015

    1. _____ is the Chief Law Officer of India
      (A) Advocate General
      (B) Attorney General
      (C) Solicitor General
      (D) Law Minister
    2. Which is not correct statement regarding financial emergency ?
      (A) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
      (B) The States may be asked to reserve the Money Bills for the
      consideration of the President
      (C) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
      (D) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
    3. How many subjects are found in the concurrent list in the Indian
      Constitution ?
      (A) 52
      (B) 62
      (C) 42
      (D) 72
    4. The residuary powers of legislation are vested in Parliament in India.
      The residuary provisions are found in which Article ?
      (A) Art 245
      (B) Art 248
      (C) Art 250
      (D) Art 251
    5. Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on items in the
      Union list. How many subjects are in the Union list at present ?
      (A) 100
      (B) 80
      (C) 87
      (D) 99
    6. Provisions regarding the Panchayats are incorporated in which articles
      ?
      (A) Art 243 to Art 243 L 
      (B) Art 243 to Art 243 M
      (C) Art 243 to Art 244
      (D) Art 243 to Art 243 O
    7. The Panchayats are enshrined in which Part of the Constitution of
      India ?
      (A) Part IX
      (B) Part IX A
      (C) Part X
      (D) Part XI A
    8. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions
      ?
      (A) Assam
      (B) Nagaland
      (C) Kerala
      (D) Tripura
    9. Article 368 very clearly lays down situations in which State
      Legislatures have to ratify a piece of Legislation before the Bill can receive
      the assent of the President. Choose the provision/provisions from the
      following that requires ratification by 1/2 of State Legislature
      (A) Women’s reservation
      (B) Amendment of provisions regarding Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
      Tribes
      (C) Fundamental Rights
      (D) Supreme court and High Court
    10. The emoluments, allowances, privileges of a Governor can be altered
      by : (2nd schedule)
      (A) A constitutional amendment passed by a simple majority in Parliament
      (B) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament
      (C) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament
      and ratified by one half of the State Legislatures
      (D) By an ordinary legislative process that does not require
      constitutional Amendment
    11. Which of the following subjects is included in the Union list ?
      (A) Agriculture
      (B) Extradition
      (C) Public health, Sanitation, Hospitals
      (D) Libraries, Museums
    12. Consolidated Fund of India is provided in
      (A) Art 234
      (B) Art 265
      (C) Art 239
      (D) Art 266
    13. The provisions regarding the Union and the State relations are
      contained in which part of the Constitution of India ?
      (A) IX
      (B) X
      (C) XII
      (D) XI
    14. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between
      the Union and the States ?
      (A) First Schedule
      (B) Second Schedule
      (C) Sixth Schedule
      (D) Seventh Schedule
    15. Which article of the Constitution of India provides personal immunity to
      the head of the State for his official act from legal action including
      proceedings for contempt of Court ?
      (A) Article 361
      (B) Article 362
      (C) Article 368
      (D) Article 369
    16. Which schedule deals with the Anti-Defection Act ?
      (A) Fifth
      (B) Eighth
      (C) Seventh
      (D) Tenth
    17. With reference to defections consider the following statements
      1. An independent member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins
      any party after 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat.
      2. A nominated member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any
      party any time
      Which statement is/are true ?
      (A) 1 only
      (B) 2 only
      (C) Both 1 & 2
      (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    18. Defection to another party after election was made illegal by the :
      (1985)
      (A) 52nd Amendment Act
      (B) 53rd Amendment Act
      (C) 54th amendment Act
      (D) 55th Amendment Act
    19. Choose the amendment to the Constitution of India that increased the
      elective strength of the Lok Sabha from 525 to 545
      (1973)
      (A) 31st Amendment Act
      (B) 30th Amendment Act
      (C) 25th Amendment Act
      (D) 21st Amendment Act
    20. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister in India is
      (A) 25 years
      (B) 30 years
      (C) 35 years

    (D) 40 years

    1. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the
      Indian Parliament separately by special majority ?
      (A) Ordinary Bill
      (B) Money Bill
      (C) Finance Bill
      (D) Constitution Amendment Bill
    2. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok
      Sabha and Rajya Sabha is
      (A) 16
      (B) 18
      (C) 14
      (D) 12
    3. Which of the following is correct ?
      (A) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the
      Vice-President of India
      (B) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are not elected by State
      Legislative Assemblies

      (C) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a
      nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Vice-President
      (D) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in
      India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the
      State from where he is contesting
    4. The Vice-President of India may be removed from his/her office by the
      (A) Legislative Assemblies of State
      (B) President
      (C) Prime Minister
      (D) Parliament
    5. Which of the following Articles states that the Vice-President is an exofficio Chairman of the Council of States ?
      (A) Article 60
      (B) Article 61
      (C) Article 62
      (D) Article 64
    6. Which Amendment to the Indian Constitution added that the President
      can sent the advice of the Council of Ministers back for reconsideration
      once and if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the
      President then the president must accept it ?
      (A) 44th Amendment
      (B) 43rd Amendment
      (C) 42nd Amendment
      (D) 41st Amendment
    7. The manner of the election of the President in India is found in :
      (A) Article 64
      (B) Article 55
      (C) Article 56
      (D) Article 57
    8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution contains the power of the
      president to grant pardons ?
      (A) Article 72
      (B) Article 73
      (C) Article 74
      (D) Article 75
    9. Which one of the following Articles empowers the president to appoint
      the Prime Minister of India ?
      (A) Article 74
      (B) Article 75
      (C) Article 76
      (D) Article 77
    10. Under which constitutional Article newspapers do not have the right to
      publish reports of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the
      Houses of parliament or Legislative Assembly and Legislative Councils in
      India ?
      (A) Article 361
      (B) Article 361 A
      (C) Article 361 B
      (D) Article 361 C
    11. The minimum age for holding office in the Rajya Sabha is
      (A) 18 years
      (B) 21 years
      (C) 25 years
      (D) 30 years
    12. What is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha
      envisaged by the Constitution of India ?
      (A) 552
      (B) 540
      (C) 555
      (D) 550
    13. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
      (A) The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers
      (B) Resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the entire
      Council of Ministers
      (C) The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Ministers
      (D) The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of
      Ministers
    14. What is the maximum permissible size of the Council of Ministers at
      the Centre ?
      (A) Maximum 50
      (B) No upper limit
      (C) Cannot exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha
      (D) Cannot exceed 10% of the total members of Lok Sabha
    15. The maximum number of Anglo Indian who can be nominated to the
      Lok Sabha are
      (A) 3
      (B) 2
      (C) 5
      (D) 4
    16. Which of the statements below is/are correct ?
      1. The Parliament of India consists of three parts, viz the President, the
      House of People and the Council of States
      2. The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament
      3. The Parliament is the Legislative organ of Union Government
      (A) 1 only
      (B) 1 & 2 only
      (C) 1 & 3 only
      (D) All of the above
    17. Choose the Article of the Indian Constitution that provides for the Joint
      sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
      (A) Article 101
      (B) Article 108
      (C) Article 133
      (D) Article 102
    18. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker who presides
      over the deliberations of the Lok Sabha ?
      (A) Oldest member of the House
      (B) Prime Minister
      (C) Leader of the opposition
      (D) One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons
      nominated by the speaker
    19. In the case of disagreement on a Bill between the two Houses of
      Parliament
      (A) The Prime Minister intervenes
      (B) The President intervenes
      (C) A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the impasse
      (D) A joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament is convened
    20. After the declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is
      the period of operation of the emergency without approval by the
      Parliament ?
      (A) One month
      (B) Two months
      (C) Three months
      (D) Four months

    WBCS Main Question Paper – 2014

    1. The Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college
      consisting of the members of :
      (A) Rajya Sabha
      (B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
      (C) State Legislatures and Lok Sabha
      (D) None of the above
    2. The President of India can nominate ____ members to the Lok Sabha
      and ___ members to the Rajya Sabha
      (A) 12, 2
      (B) 2, 12
      (C) 2, 10
      (D) 10, 2
    3. Who among the following did not serve as the Vice President of India
      before becoming the President of India ?
      (A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
      (B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
      (C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
      (D) Shankar Dayal Sharma
    4. Out of the following who served as the first Vice President of India ?
      (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
      (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
      (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
      (D) V. V, Giri
    5. In which article of the Constitution of India has the joint sitting of the
      Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha been provided ?
      (A) Article 104
      (B) Article 108
      (C) Article 133
      (D) Article 143
    6. Which among the following is the middle unit of Three Tier Panchayati
      Raj System ?
      (A) Gram Panchayat
      (B) Panchayat Samiti
      (C) Zila Parishad
      (D) Gram Sabha
    7. Sarkaria Commission was set up in the year :
      (central-state relation)
      (A) 1982
      (B) 1983
      (C) 1984
      (D) 1985
    8. Unlike that of the Lok Sabha what is the period of the Rajya Sabha ?
      (A) 6 years
      (B) 5 years
      (C) It is a Permanent House
      (D) 2 years
    9. The Lok Sabha was first constituted in :
      (A) 1947
      (B) 1952
      (C) 1950
      (D) 1951
    10. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament
      legislate on any subject in the state list ?
      (A) Article 229
      (B) Article 249
      (C) Article 239
      (D) Article 259
    11. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted in :
      (A) 1985
      (B) 1980
      (C) 1983
      (D) 1982
    12. Which one among the following is not stipulated in the Constitution of
      India ?
      (A) Union Public Service Commission
      (B) Election Commission of India
      (C) Council of Ministers
      (D) The Planning Commission
    13. Nagarpalika bill was first introduced in the Parliament during the
      Primeministership of
      (A) Rajiv Gandhi
      (B) Narashimha Rao
      (C) V. P. Singh
      (D) Indira Gandhi
    14. Anti-Defection law was placed in :
      (A) The Preamble
      (B) The Fundamental Rights chapter in the Constitution
      (C) 6th schedule of the Constitution
      (D) 10th schedule of the Constitution
    15. Which Article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to
      amend the Constitution ?
      (A) 370
      (B) 368
      (C) 390
      (D) 376
    16. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in :
      (A) either House of the Parliament
      (B) a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament
      (C) the Lok Sabha alone
      (D) the Rajya Sabha alone
    17. Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdiction of the State
      Governments ?
      (A) Corporation Tax
      (B) Customs Duty Tax
      (C) Sales Tax
      (D) Income Tax
    18. When a Bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the
      President, within what time he must return the Bill ?
      (A) Three months
      (B) Six months
      (C) One year
      (D) There is no time limit
    19. Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of
      India ? (Union List – 47)
      (A) Insurance
      (B) Fisheries
      (C) Agriculture
      (D) Gambling
    20. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged by the
      Constitution ?
      (A) 2
      (B) 3
      (C) 4
      (D) 1
    21. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a
      specific mention of village Panchayats :
      (A) Article 19
      (B) Article 21
      (C) Article 40
      (D) Article 246

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